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cho

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  1. does that mean we cant work out the probablity of the shoe we havent played? because it read from ZuanXIN Baccarat, in non biased shoe, average hands played is 72(ignoring tie), banker and player should be 50%/50%. Then from those bankers and players, Halves should be single(1iers) and the other halves having some repeats being (2's, 3's, 4's and so on). I wanted to know if there is a way to calculate the frequency of those repeats appearing in shoes we have not played.
  2. Thanks for the table chart. However i think thats not quite the information im looking for or that miss read the chart. To make my question clearer i put the following example: Say This is the shoe I was playing, B-1112111231321111111211316212131141121222411 Above we see 3's 4 times(4/43), 4's 2 times(2/43) and 4's+ 1 times(1/43). That is 7 times total out of 43 columns, so 7/43 or roughly 16.3%. the question would be how to calculate the average percentage for all the shoes. i.e. Percentage of 3's, 4's, 4's+ in any shoes. thanks again
  3. in any baccarat shoe, we see runs of 3's or 4's and even 4+ for either banker or player. does anyone have information on the probability of the frequency these runs would occur in any given shoe? or the average probability out of all possible combination of shoes? Any ideas anyones? thanks
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