Jump to content

jerryczy

Legacy Players
  • Posts

    112
  • Joined

  • Last visited

  • Days Won

    1

Posts posted by jerryczy

  1. Therefore all minus count shoes have more 2 or mores than 1's. That is the only way a minus OR count can be produced. Since EVERY run contains a 2, every run produces a 2nd liner and the shoe MUST have more 2 or mores than 1's to have produced a minus count in the first place.

    Likewise, every Plus count shoe MUST have more 1's than 2 or mores but ALL events (one or mores) produce a first liner.

    Therefore we can define a plus count as a shoe with more first liners than 2nd or more liners.

    And we can define a minus OR count as a shoe having more 2nd liners than any other liners.

    Hi Ellis, I have a little confused here. For Example, we have a shoe like this:11171, OR count is -2,here we have 4 1 liners and only 1 2s+ liners.

  2. So, when play F3 and losses 2 hands, the lossing patten will be 2131(2 on the losing side) right? confusing...

    Almost ;) Remember, when I stated that you are ALREADY playing F2... and F2 "will follow the 2".... so if you get 2 losses, they HAVE to be on the losing side...plus you have a "2" that just happened. So the next bet (at least the way I'm playing this) will be on the side you just LOST on(because you had 2 in a row and you have to follow the 2). Now, if it wins, your in luck and continue to play F2 (cause when you have 3's you want to be playing F2) If that 3rd bet LOSES, then I'm back on the other side playing F3 hoping to catch some of the zig zag.

    BTW... I didn't address progressions... I have been flat betting at the beginning until a win; then was using a 1,1,2 negative progression... then as I got to +3 or +4 switching to U1D2 with NO M2.

    I REALLY like Papa Joes 1, 1.5, 2... that may very well prove to be the way to go. :wink:

×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

Terms of Use