shuttlesmasher Posted December 19, 2011 Report Share Posted December 19, 2011 Maths question Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shuttlesmasher Posted December 19, 2011 Author Report Share Posted December 19, 2011 Question is. If the chance of losing 3 consecutive bets is 1 in 8. What's the chance of losing all 3 bets in A 80 hands shoe? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Posted December 19, 2011 Report Share Posted December 19, 2011 Question is. If the chance of losing 3 consecutive bets is 1 in 8. What's the chance of losing all 3 bets in A 80 hands shoe?Hi SS! I see your point but really, your questions are moot. 1 in 8 assumes random play in random cards. We are doing neither. We aren't playing randomly and we pick the most biased tables while avoiding the most random altogether. Then, we only play about 30 to 36 plays per shoe, never 80. Then, we probably lose a 121 prog more often than a 123 or 123 4. But a lost prog doesn't dictate a lost shoe. We often win anyway, especially if we can get to the 345. I've lost the 345 many times and still hit +20. I've also lost the 123 4 and still won the shoe. But I haven't lost a 123 4 this year because we bet that prog so seldom. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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