Bud

Well, don't hold your breath. I was looking over this shoe and your comments again. Here's how I see it.

PJ's respose is correct at plays 7 & 9. 1's are above normal so you go 2344 under the repeats. But at play 11 they are only 3 out of 6, so you are right, the player side should be 213 with 2's most common. At play 14, 1's are tied with 3's as least common, so you use the shortest event. Rule 2.4 says when 1's are least common you bet unopposed under the circle(FTL). So from PJ's answer I assume 1's least common trumps 2 MC, hence a PL of 1.

Play 70

According to rule 1.9, two opposites OVER RIDES ALL OTHERS. So it should be 2 on P and ONE on B. PJ's answer makes no sense whatsoever. It looks like you see that. Why can't he? And he is supposed to be one of the experts. Kinda makes you wonder, doesn't it?

You look to be a newer member and probably have not seen some of my posts which are not always all that favorable. I'm sending you this PM because even when I submit a very non-contraversial post or ask a simple question, it fails to get posted.

good luck

Bud

going nowhere with this....doesn't seem to get any less confusing, does it?