3 additional shoes?

[brad01]

Hi guys heres something ive been looking at: the first result of every shoe you play starts with a b or a p. Its 50/50. Same as the second result is a opposite or a repeat. Same as last result is a b or a p. If we look at every shoe as a continuation for those 3 events and you record it you may or you will see trends and biases. Could these not be an additional 3 shoes / bets per shoe we could play if we can see a bias?

[kingstar]

In my opinion, after re-shuffle, every shoes should be seen as an independent shoe, we cannot consider previous shoe's last result as the previous hand of current shoe's first hand.

[brad01]

I agree with you when looking at each individual shoe having its own trends and biases but that is not what this is about.

Its about the first hand for example of every shoe you play being a 50/50 result.

In effect it has its own trends and biases and is completely random

If you go back and look at the 20 shoes posted by Kevin or by Siki D Boy in previous threads and look down the column at the first results and tell me you couldn't make a few units with the results?

I know there are people using this for sports betting and also Kevin is using this type of theory with some of his bets.

Everyone get good shoes and bad shoes with baccarat - how is this any different or worse - it may even produce better trends than what you get in your next shoe?

[brad01]

For example every shoe I have played recently starts with B.

This may change but it may not - how is it any different from baccarat - you see a bias and you take advantage of it while it lasts - if it lasts

[brad01]

so far 3 / 4 shoes I have played have all started with banker

2 / 4 have started with repeats

Haven't been keeping track of last ones as usually concentrating at end of shoe

At the start they are 2 bets I can easily make as still feeling the shoe out so not betting until I see a reason to start betting

Just saying you could be missing out on some good bets that are 50 / 50 odds