bac-cracker

does anyone know where i can get a software that lets us choose plays so it shows us the tote board and all the roadmaps etc. it helps to see the shoe live while looking working on the NOR... just to see why i played the way i did, or remembering the shoe, etc.

Ok, so lets say I am in otbm3 as that is what we normally start out at... the first progression we lose so we change to m2 and that loses. Now we just lost both progressions... this doesn't mean its a bad shoe, but should we get out? our next mode would be m2 and keep m2 unless it is going m3 a lot. As far as starting out m3 and it worked the first time, then the 2nd time, it would have won m2, i am assuming we suppose to switch to the last one, and then if we were at m2 and it went m3, then we stick to m3 for otb? also another question, i seem to like s40 now as m3 is killer, but when in m2, it starts off at m3 and i lose a lot of bets that way too, so i guess it goes both ways... pretty hard when it gets to this point... it 3 banks or 4 banks back to 4 or 3 to 5 etc... so mode changes keep happening and lose a lot of 3 bets... what to do or its just bad shoe and i got to implant that in my head?

what happens when you win your 1 bet and then lose the 2nd bet progression... do you go to a 3 bet. also has this been working well on most of the shoes as you have to win a lot of your 2 bets or at least the 3 bet.

Lets say you are betting U1D2 at 234, does this still apply or you just start at 2 and if you lose you keep going up 23456 etc then win your 7, you go down to 5 bet. Now if you had a mandatory and lose what happens. Lets say you win your first bet of 2, then you up to 3 and lose that, do you bet 4 on your next bet or do you restart at 2?

I had a question on mode bets. Lets say you lose a mode bet by switching in a progression. Do you increase your bet on the next hand or do you start all over. Example for s40m2 P141 So here are my plays at play 2 with 234 betting. 2 B +2 Win 3 P -2 Lose 4 P -3 Lose 5 B +4 Win OTR 6 B -2 Lose 2nd OTR Okay, now is my next bet going back to s40 a 3 for my bet? As for a P34, how does the betting go on this? Lets say its 123 we are using, you lose every bet, anyway to minimize the damage if this happens or does it not happen that often?

I had a question on mode bets. Lets say you lose a mode bet by switching in a progression. Do you increase your bet on the next hand or do you start all over. Example for s40m2 P141 So here are my plays at play 2 with 234 betting. 2 B +2 Win 3 P -2 Lose 4 P -3 Lose 5 B +4 Win OTR 6 B -2 Lose 2nd OTR Okay, now is my next bet going back to s40 a 3 for my bet? As for a P34, how does the betting go on this? Lets say its 123 we are using, you lose every bet, anyway to minimize the damage if this happens or does it not happen that often?

P174413 B136212212 B21121 Here is what I would like to know. 1. I know that it would be best to play this in F, but I want to learn the modes in s40m2 at the beginning of the shoe and other parts. If I do it incorrectly, I can lose a lot of bets after the one I hit on the 3 bet for long runs. 2. Also for otb the mode changes and i could lose a lot of bets. 3. For F this would be killer, but for modes it changes and if your on the wrong side, it can be a disaster.

P174413 B136212212 B21121 Here is what I would like to know. 1. I know that it would be best to play this in F, but I want to learn the modes in s40m2 at the beginning of the shoe and other parts. If I do it incorrectly, I can lose a lot of bets after the one I hit on the 3 bet for long runs. 2. Also for otb the mode changes and i could lose a lot of bets. 3. For F this would be killer, but for modes it changes and if your on the wrong side, it can be a disaster.

I am a little confused to what you did here. Are your numbers correct based on the shoe as I wasn't able to follow it correctly. By the way when you are in s40m2, is m2 what you normally start with, if so, don't you go OTR twice. Since we went OTR twice on hand 19 and missed, do you go OTR 1 time next time. For the next run of 6 I didn't understand what you did at all. Can you go play by play on hand 21-34 Thanks

What is wrong with new cards that are preshuffled. I have noticed at a casino that they are preshuffled and then the dealers split the card and shuffle once and stack them. Sometimes the same table is choppy 75% of the shoes in the same day 3:1. On another day it would be 1/2 or even reversed 25% choppy and 75% streaky. It's the same table so how would you know how the table is. Is it that day or in general? Also, why do you think that a table would do the same thing over and over again with preshuffled cards. It would be random especially when they shuffle and we cut, can you please explain that?

Ok, if you go with 345 and you are going u1d1m2, how would this work lets say you win 3 and go to 4 and that loses, do you go to 5? what happens when you lose the 5? do you go 5 again. and lets say you lose 3x, 5 5 5, do you bet 5, 5, 5 to recover or do you go 5, 4, 3. Thanks

Lol. Semantics!!! I was playing off as a no bet. Was wondering why you didn't bet it like the rest of the times since it always won except for one. Hence when I asked why you bet a 2bet without bettin the one (off). Haha Yes we are on the same page now. Thanks for being patient

Ellis, I am sure I am making it harder than it is by asking all these questions. I got all the bets the same as you. But here was what I was asking. I would want to have bet 38 (ON) instead of off like you did and it would also be B1. Yes OTR 2 bet would be P1 and lost every single bet, thats why I would be B1 on this like you also did on play 17, 24, 33. Therefore I was just wondering why all of a sudden it went off (not placing a wager right?) I also had a question on play 11, is that considered your 2nd bet, (not counting otr 1 or 2 as first bet if it lost) Thanks again

I was playing this as an F shoe F2, not in OTB which you already did. I just want to learn how to deal with these spots. So starting in F2, play 10 I bet 3rd bet. Then, is 11 the 4th bet or would I still make this the ONE bet. Reason I ask because on 12 I bet P2, which would make my F3 work on 3rd bet P. However after that, the next is a F3 worked at 16, and then the F3 fails at 24, then the rest goes back to F2. A lot of switches that I would try to avoid had it happened and I was in that mode. I didn't do OTB because I saw the chart you played and it loss so I would have played F because of the SS at the beginning

Hi, The reason I would bet 38 ON is that every 3rd bet that won has went back to opposites. So every play except for 1. Plays: 8, 17, 33 Only play 27 didn't and we had to go to 4 bet But I guess if it were a safe bet and we didn't know, then we can leave it off. The other question I had was since your 38 bet was off and you didn't lose physical money, did you need to progress up to 2nd bet since there was never a real first bet for 39?

Well the first 2 times we needed 3 bet, F3 worked out. Then the next F3 failed. So going by Ellis comments to me. Start with F2 and also use the mode that occurs the most. This would be mode 3 still. I still have questions on what I asked before and now have others. 8 p1 9 p2 10 b3 11 p4 or p1 12 p2 - now is this part of a 2nd bet that is lost, so go 3rd bet... or is it different since you have a otr lost, then switch back to SS, is that a bet of its own or a first bet? Or would you be able to show how you did it to hand 40?

I woulda played this as F. I would have lost a lot of bets on the 3rd bet and at hand 24, it gets tough. Lets say I didn't switch, how would you play that, you would just take all the losses in f3 24 p1 25 p2 26 p3 27 b1 28 p2 29 p3 What do you do for hand 30... .this is a tough shoe.

Ok, I got the above, but didn't get an answer to this below. As for 38, why would you make this OFF if all the other times we were in M2 and went OTR 1 bet then went back to s40 hitting every single one. So for me, 38 would be B1 (ON) with a loss. Then 39 would be P2, or would you do P1? As for what you did, you had b1 OFF, then you increased to a 2 bet without making a 1 bet. So you would still increase to 2 and not make it p1 bet? Can you do a 9iar instead of the 6 in the shoe? When I did it, in Off, i would lose all the B1, then I would win all the P2 bets except for the last. Thanks

Woops, I looked at it again, I did F2 during that decade. So I get that part now, so when you lose the first OTR bet on s40, you go right back to s40. 33. We are still m2 since it had more events ok. 38 is still off to me and the rest in my last post

Actually these may need corrections too. 26 B3 27 P1 28 B1 – There wasn’t a need for a 4 bet ever, might of skipped something 29 P1 As for 38, why would you make this OFF if all the other times we were in M2 and went OTR 1 bet then went back to s40 hitting every single one. So for me, 38 would be B1 (ON) with a loss As for what you did, you had b1 off, then you increased to a 2 bet. So you would still increase to 2 and not make it p1 bet? Can you do a 9iar instead of the 6 in the shoe? When I did it, in Off, i would lose all the B1, then I would win all the P2 bets except for the last. Thanks

Wow, thanks, I was still a noob and only doing OTB as it was stuck in my head being the first I learned. Anyhow, I did this over again and got the +19, THANKS!!! However i have these questions. Since on play 9, I go OTR for 2nd bet and miss -1, then I go opposite, do I increase and bet -2? And since this missed, do I do a 3rd bet rule and go OTR on B? (I didn't and just did opp) It gets a little confusing because lets say it was later in the shoe and my 9th bet was opp. And I hit. Now, my 10th is an opposite and a 1 bet, then the 11th, I bet 2 and hit. So no one even thinks if this would have been a 3 bet in the above situation. With U1D2, do we go all the way up to 5 or 6, and what happens once we hit the max, betting 123456. Ok, I just read this before I had a question. Typically in M3 OTB, you change modes on whatever is last or do you go by what MOST happens too. For example on 27, m2 hit twice and m3 once, so stick with m2 on S40. And OTB same? I didn’t get the On Off for the long run. I did OTR 2nd bet for play 39, then 40 was I suppose to bet opp again or did you mean off by not playing, what would happen if it was 9? What is ATR? Again, your awesome, I hope I can do this well in all shoes.

Hi Ellis, Here is another shoe I played live before. I got some questions on modes. B112421114111 B213111461 B11122 On play 14, I would be on m3 and won 4th bet. After that, I was wondering if I could have a M2-1 which means go mode 2, but only go OTR for 1 bet for zz. Maybe just keep a note of it? Play 21 this happens exactly, and then on hand 31 I use it again, but then I would lose it on hand 45. Also when was a good jumping in point here. I will not jump in at 2 like you do unless I am using Nor+ and u1d1-2, I think thats why you can do that right? Please let me know your thoughts as I would like to be more consistent and not trying to hit everything. Much appreciated. Thanks

Ellis, I need help with this shoe I played live. I don't quite understand how to use the F on this and when to change modes. Also I remember parts of the forum that say you may switch modes for each sides so that was another possibility. I guess again, that it all depends on the shoe. Anyhow, It gets tricky around 22 when I don't know to be in f2 or f3. So 22-30 it gets tricky, other than that, I did f2 all the way after and it was fine. B1414334 B122111232113 B443131211 B111122 Thanks

I have a few questions after charting this out and printing. I understand 3-4 you bet OTB. But then 5. B1 won 6. B2 - why is this is a 2 bet 7. B3 - why is this a 3 bet... and I don't understand your explanation. So here you might say why go F3 when you already have a 4 and no 2's? Because I'm going by SS. I'm seeing 4 Ps and no Bs. (at this point you do see 2Bs so was I missing something here) 8. B4 - why is this a 4 bet Also on here it seems like you switched to F2 for both sides. Should we do this or should we keep a separate mode for player and banker? When did you switch to F and why not try 7. as OTB still? 8

Hi Ellis, I guess you thought it was obvious, but why did you start all bets with Banks, when I would figure you would start out with PP, then lose 3 bets and go on the Bank run on the 8iar? Please clarify anyone?