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So someone please tell me where this is wrong.

If I wait for every potential banker 1 in a row in other words P11 and then bet 1 on player every time this occurs and only one bet on player. If it wins stop make 1 chip, and if it loses wait till the P11 pattern happens again how can I not have a 1.27% advantage since I am betting that banker 1 in a rows is the most common event in Baccarat?

K

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So someone please tell me where this is wrong.

If I wait for every potential banker 1 in a row in other words P11 and then bet 1 on player every time this occurs and only one bet on player. If it wins stop make 1 chip, and if it loses wait till the P11 pattern happens again how can I not have a 1.27% advantage since I am betting that banker 1 in a rows is the most common event in Baccarat?

K

This sounds like the "twist" (minus the 4D and the prog).

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So someone please tell me where this is wrong.

If I wait for every potential banker 1 in a row in other words P11 and then bet 1 on player every time this occurs and only one bet on player. If it wins stop make 1 chip, and if it loses wait till the P11 pattern happens again how can I not have a 1.27% advantage since I am betting that banker 1 in a rows is the most common event in Baccarat?

K

Keith,

Just to make sure I'm looking at this correctly, are we talking P11 or can we also use P21 or P31, etc?

Does the sequence have to preceed the B with a "singleton" P?

MVS

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