Need help on how to use different progs

[Tlam62]

Hi Mr.Davis and all of you who know answer to my question,

I have been focused on learning how to play systems of NOR and didn't pay attention on all the different money progs to go along with. Now i am about ready to learn them. Would you please teach me how? Especially the U1D1M2, and the U1D2 ? Please explain them in simple words since English is my second language, and it will be very helpful if you can attach samples a long with your explaination. Thank you so much and wish you all well always.

[Edgonsal]

Hi Mr.Davis and all of you who know answer to my question,

I have been focused on learning how to play systems of NOR and didn't pay attention on all the different money progs to go along with. Now i am about ready to learn them. Would you please teach me how? Especially the U1D1M2, and the U1D2 ? Please explain them in simple words since English is my second language, and it will be very helpful if you can attach samples a long with your explaination. Thank you so much and wish you all well always.

Hi Tlam62,

U1D1M2 means that you go up 1 unit when you lose and drop it down one unit after you win. M2 means a mandatory 2 unit bet as your lowest bet.

Example is when you bet 2 units (minimum bet of 2 units - NOT ONE UNIT) on P or B and lose - your next bet is 3 units on P or B you lose again - your next bet would be 4 units on P or B and you win - you drop down 1 unit. (4 -1 = 3) so your next bet is three units on P or B and you win again and drop down 1 unit (3 - 1 = 2) now your back to your mandatory 2 unit bet.

U1D2 means that you start out with a 1 unit bet and drop down 2 units after a win. Example would be to win a 3 unit bet - you just lost 2 in a row which put you at a 3 unit bet, you win so you drop down 2 units back to a 1 unit bet (3 - 2 = 1)

You should look at the universal baccarat glossary of terms

Good luck, Ed

[ECD]

Hi Tlam62,

U1D1M2 means that you go up 1 unit when you lose and drop it down one unit after you win. M2 means a mandatory 2 unit bet as your lowest bet.

Example is when you bet 2 units (minimum bet of 2 units - NOT ONE UNIT) on P or B and lose - your next bet is 3 units on P or B you lose again - your next bet would be 4 units on P or B and you win - you drop down 1 unit. (4 -1 = 3) so your next bet is three units on P or B and you win again and drop down 1 unit (3 - 1 = 2) now your back to your mandatory 2 unit bet.

U1D2 means that you start out with a 1 unit bet and drop down 2 units after a win. Example would be to win a 3 unit bet - you just lost 2 in a row which put you at a 3 unit bet, you win so you drop down 2 units back to a 1 unit bet (3 - 2 = 1)

You should look at the universal baccarat glossary of terms

Good luck, Ed

Hey Ed...I think you may have got confused between U1D1B2 and U1D1M2...U!D1M2 still goes down to a 1 bet but follows every 1 bet (win or lose) with a mandatory 2 Bet.

I've never played U1D1B2 myself...Indeed I can only remember ever seeing it mentioned once in the NOR+ Thread....but I gather that it is played as you describe with a lowest bet of 2

Take care

Oz

[Guest]

Right! You guys bring up a VERY important point!

We talk so much about how to maneuver your way through BAD shoes that we leave no time to talk about how best to Exploit GOOD shoes.

Much like the situation Ed found himself in at Foxwood a couple days ago.

But, whenever we find ourselves with very high 1's (S40 EXPLOIT)

or

very high 2s (OTB4L exploit)

Remember that HALF of all shoes have high 1's

and half of all shoes have high 2s.

So Exploit situations come up a lot more often than most realize

Such casino shuffle mistakes come up a lot especially when the casino is reacting to their worst enemy - super streak!

They often over react and go all the way to super chop.

Now, let me let you in on a little secret!

Any time you are thinking of basing at 2 instead of 1, You are probably better off basing at THREE.

For the very same mathematical reasons we discussed in basic 1234 NOR

A good 234 shoe is a better 345 shoe because 345 imposes less risk than 234.

Remember we used 234 only as a stepping stone to 345 and with sound mathematical reason.

But it ends at 345. 456 is a definite no no.

But since we were discussing only basic NOR and not NOR+ we did not discuss 345 U1D1 or put simpler:

U1D1B3

But we SHOULD have discussed it so lets discuss it now

U1D1B3 is our MOST aggressive progression and should be reserved for very high 1's (S40)

and very high 2s (OTB4L)

or both (S40)

Ed, do us all a favor and go back and try your recent Foxwood day basing at 3.

Play the same as you did - S40 in S40 shoes and OTB4L in OTB4L shoes

except base at 3 with U1D1

And let us know what happens.

I'll bet that some of you shoes go into the 40s - maybe even 50s

But you will see that basing at 3 in those high 1's and 2s situations is even less risky than basing at 1.

Try it!

[Edgonsal]

Right! You guys bring up a VERY important point!

We talk so much about how to maneuver your way through BAD shoes that we leave no time to talk about how best to Exploit GOOD shoes.

Much like the situation Ed found himself in at Foxwood a couple days ago.

But, whenever we find ourselves with very high 1's (S40 EXPLOIT)

or

very high 2s (OTB4L exploit)

Remember that HALF of all shoes have high 1's

and half of all shoes have high 2s.

So Exploit situations come up a lot more often than most realize

Such casino shuffle mistakes come up a lot especially when the casino is reacting to their worst enemy - super streak!

They often over react and go all the way to super chop.

Now, let me let you in on a little secret!

Any time you are thinking of basing at 2 instead of 1, You are probably better off basing at THREE.

For the very same mathematical reasons we discussed in basic 1234 NOR

A good 234 shoe is a better 345 shoe because 345 imposes less risk than 234.

Remember we used 234 only as a stepping stone to 345 and with sound mathematical reason.

But it ends at 345. 456 is a definite no no.

But since we were discussing only basic NOR and not NOR+ we did not discuss 345 U1D1 or put simpler:

U1D1B3

But we SHOULD have discussed it so lets discuss it now

U1D1B3 is our MOST aggressive progression and should be reserved for very high 1's (S40)

and very high 2s (OTB4L)

or both (S40)

Ed, do us all a favor and go back and try your recent Foxwood day basing at 3.

Play the same as you did - S40 in S40 shoes and OTB4L in OTB4L shoes

except base at 3 with U1D1

And let us know what happens.

I'll bet that some of you shoes go into the 40s - maybe even 50s

But you will see that basing at 3 in those high 1's and 2s situations is even less risky than basing at 1.

Try it!

Your right Ellis - the +28 shoe turns to +65 (3,4,5 always start again at 3 even after losing the full progression)

The plus +30 shoe turned to a + 59 (I feel confident enough to start at play 2 if I know the table bias in advance)

I should also mention that I go back to a 3 bet after any win. U1D1 would add an extra 5 - 7 units to the final score.

I prefer to go OTR after 2 losses in a row (seems to help more with the ZZ's than SS) and play the on again/off again for the long runs.

[Edgonsal]

Hey Ed...I think you may have got confused between U1D1B2 and U1D1M2...U!D1M2 still goes down to a 1 bet but follows every 1 bet (win or lose) with a mandatory 2 Bet.

I've never played U1D1B2 myself...Indeed I can only remember ever seeing it mentioned once in the NOR+ Thread....but I gather that it is played as you describe with a lowest bet of 2

Take care

Oz

Thanks for clearing that up for me

[Tlam62]

Thank you all for the explaination, i truly appreciated.