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+6 the hard way (S40M1 +5 version)


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  • Legacy Players
Problem is even good OTB4L shoes can have 4 iars both straight and ZZ. And if that happens back to back you're gona lose.

Hmm maybe trying OTB4L mode 1 is worth looking into. Might be a lot of 0 bets with that though... seems like it would be tough to get to +5 that way due to lack of bets.

I have tried OTBL4 M1 NOR (not +5). You don't have a problem with 4's and 5's but with 3's . Other than that it works great.

I have been meaning to revisit that using a 1-2-1-2 prog to make it easier to get out of the issues with 3 iar's.

good luck.

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I honestly don't know if these are preshuffled or not, but it is shoe #28 from Norm's 60 Vegas shoes.

And aren't we constantly told that Vegas is all preshuffled?

I saw Norm in Vegas the week he played those 60 shoes last May. They are all preshuffled from the MGM Grand. It is easy to assume random cards won't produce 4 3+s before a 2, but I would like to see the evidence to support that. Just this last weekend, 3 of the 14 tables I played (all preshuffled) did just that. Be interesting to see how many of Norm's 60 shoes do as well.

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I have to play mostly online,which doesn't seem to be pre-shuffled cards yet. Does this mean that I should abandon the +5 ideas and go back to Nor+ or is there

A way to adapt these same +5 principles to regular cards and just go for +5 even

Though some form of Nor+ might do better in certain shoes?

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I'm in Atlantic City tonight celebrating my birthday..I really don't know how to play this method yet. But, here is a shoe that was played @ table a few minutes ago. if anyone would like to play this out and give me a detailed explanation of what I could have done, I would be very grateful..thanks Joey

P 112121141231

B 2 4 1112 2 3 2 1

B 12 3 3 1 2

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I'm in Atlantic City tonight celebrating my birthday..I really don't know how to play this method yet. But, here is a shoe that was played @ table a few minutes ago. if anyone would like to play this out and give me a detailed explanation of what I could have done, I would be very grateful..thanks Joey

P 112121141231

B 2 4 1112 2 3 2 1

B 12 3 3 1 2

I played your shoe in BaS40M1 and BaS40. FYI: I had to adjust the shoe since your second column only had 19 plays. I took the 1 banker first play in the third column and made it play 20 and started the third column with P2.

Here it is BaS40M1: image2014_05_09_13_07_550001.pdf

Here it is BaS40: image2014_05_09_13_08_280001.pdf

I'm trying to follow the rules, so I hope I got it right. Check it out and please point out any errors.

I'm still working on BaOTB4L. Have to wrap my head around understanding OTR and ATR with the secondary progression when we take ZZ runs into account along with straight runs. I'm practicing. I'd love to see a shoe played out by Ellis with this method.

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I played your shoe in BaS40M1 and BaS40. FYI: I had to adjust the shoe since your second column only had 19 plays. I took the 1 banker first play in the third column and made it play 20 and started the third column with P2.

Here it is BaS40M1: [ATTACH]2940[/ATTACH]

Here it is BaS40: [ATTACH]2941[/ATTACH]

I'm trying to follow the rules, so I hope I got it right. Check it out and please point out any errors.

I'm still working on BaOTB4L. Have to wrap my head around understanding OTR and ATR with the secondary progression when we take ZZ runs into account along with straight runs. I'm practicing. I'd love to see a shoe played out by Ellis with this method.

Hi gman,

I agree with the BAS40 solution

I found a discrepancy at play 6 in the BaS40SM1 solution.

If your intention was to continue the previous run, the run was stopped by the banker win

and the 0 bet at 5 was a loser,

I think 6 should be a p1 (opposite the banker win at play 5.

This would change the next handful of plays at least , so I didn't continue.

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Hi gman,

I agree with the BAS40 solution

I found a discrepancy at play 6 in the BaS40SM1 solution.

If your intention was to continue the previous run, the run was stopped by the banker win

and the 0 bet at 5 was a loser,

I think 6 should be a p1 (opposite the banker win at play 5.

This would change the next handful of plays at least , so I didn't continue.

Good catch. Yes, I screwed that up right from the start just as you point out. Unfortunately, I replayed it and I do get to +3 in the first column but the column still ends at +1 just like the other and the rest of the shoe plays out the same.

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