Hello, my friends... Before you start to read this thread, I suggest you "google" the words "1 is the lonliest number 3 Dog Night", and you'll be in the mood for what I am about to say... I must admit this is my first real post to start a thread in this FORUM, but I am a long-time Bac player and I think I have a lot to add, albeit requiring you to put your thinking-cap in place. What I am about to write about is not a PROVEN COMMODITY, and will be most meaningful to those of you who have saved 100's of actual played shoe results like I have... That said, I am looking for your comments... My "research" consists of cards I have saved since 2002 , played in Canada, Reno,Milwaukee, Macau, Vegas, Biloxi, etc...I only have kept the last several hundred, but have played many more over the last 10 years... _______________________________________________________________________________- So, here goes: The other day, I was playing in Biloxi, MS. and it seemed to me that 3-in-a-row, 4-in-a-row, 5-in-a-row, etc on either PLAYER or BANKER was most likely to occur after a single event of "1-in-a-row" on the opposite side. Got me to thinking so much, that when I got home, I went back to my 300+ cards saved from playing all-over-the-place, and I calculated the following: IN MY CARD SAMPLING, , ANYTHING EQUAL TO OR MORE THAN 3-in-a row occurred 53.7 % of the time after a 1-in-a row on the opposite side... In other words, in only 46.3% of the cases did a 3-in-a-row, 4-in-a-row,5-in-a-row OR MORE on either the PLAYER OR BANKER side occur after anything other than a 1-in-a-row on the opposite side...( NOTE: A TIE DOES NOT COUNT AS AN INTERRUPTION TO THE PROGRESSION) Yes, I find this very hard to believe myself!! All of my cards are live games, no internet shoes. 1) This goes against everything about the "averages" of BACCARAT ( how many times a shift will occur after 1-in-a-row, 2-in-a-row, etc.) . And by the way, those #'s posted by Ellis are correct... 2) This hardly seemed possible, so I rechecked my figures again and again. I kept thinking maybe my sample size is inadequate, but figuring 75-80 hands per shoe, that's over 22,000 hands played. 3) Just like you would expect, in some shoes, this was way off, while in others the advantage was as much as 8-to-1! __________________________________________________________________________________________________ So my question is this: Can enough of us look at our old shoes ( actually played) to see if my experience is a fluke?? Most, important, Is this an exploitable advantage? In other words, can we make money from this? Would it help to influence your bet progressions, no matter what strategy you were using? Frankly, I do not know the answer... ____________________________________________________________________________________________ If you think this is radical, wait until you see my next post about what I have observed happens after a 3-in-a-row, 4-in-a-row, 5-in-a-row, etc...it is even more thought-provoking... _____________________________________________________________________________ Thanks to all for their insight and response. I am anxious to hear your comments. Email me or call me. kachatz1 kachatz@treomanagement.com 850-687-3128