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How to achieve a 100% win rate with MDB!


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Here's this one played out: [ATTACH]3008[/ATTACH]

Changed to S40M1 at play 10 and stayed with it through the rest of the shoe. Never hit -5, but got close, and it clawed back to a +5 at play 54 in the third column. I stayed S40M1 because the 4+'s SAP count stayed highest, even when the 2's tied the 4+'s at play 28. The 1's seemed to be trending up, so I stayed with S40M1.

I went back OTR at play 16, and since it won, I stayed OTR till a loss. This could have been played with only one more OTR bet to the 4iar at play 16 and then back to S40M1, since the last run was only a 4iar at plays 5-8, but right now I'm playing till a loss whenever I go back OTR after a secondary progression bet ATR losses. Ellis may shed some light if this is correct or not, but it's what I'm doing right now in my play.

I got off the run at play 41 since the last run before that was a 4iar at plays 30-33.

What do you think Glenn? Did you play the same?

Well this was a tough shoe no matter how you slice it. 4 2s w/O a 3; and 3 3s W/O a 2.

Play 17 is a little questionable but it all depends on what runs are doing overall in the casino. When 4+s are runnning high I think it best to stay on all runs - esp if 7s are high.

But this shoe again demonstrates that "highest count rules" is the best way. Because the highest count determines the success rate of our primary prog.

Yes there was 4 2s W/O a 3 but meanwhile we hit +5.

I think it would be good whenever we post shoes to note whether the shoe was regular or preshuffled cards.

This one I'm guessing was regular cards.

I'm toying with the question of whether we should reverse the polarity of the 0 bet meaning in regular cards. I'm sure we have it right for preshuffled but I'm not so sure with regular.

Well played gman!

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I'm toying with the question of whether we should reverse the polarity of the 0 bet meaning in regular cards. I'm sure we have it right for preshuffled but I'm not so sure with regular.

Now that is interesting! Or even use the "3rd bet" rule. 2nd bet for s40m1 for the secondary prog. Just thinking out loud...

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From Ellis’ sticky “Rules†thread:

I'm going to rename the 3 MDB systems here so that the system's name relates to the SAP counts.

S1 (BaS40) is played when 1's are the highest SAP count.

S23 (BaOTB4L) is played when either 2s or 3s are the highest SAP count.

S4+ (BaS40M1) is played when 4+ (4 or mores) are the highest SAP count.

Great idea! I’m loving this name change for its simplicity. It will take a little time to get used to, but will make writing out much easier than what we were doing.

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  • 2 weeks later...

Mr. Davis,

Have not posted too much on this forum as of yet. If you have an SAP count that is dictating an OTB4L or BAS40M1 and 1's are starting to catch up, about how many 1's iar would you consider changing?

Good! Your question indicates you are catching on quick. When you first start it is probably best to go by actual SAP comparisons.

BUT, as you use SAP you can't help but notice changing trends early. You will find yourself noting things like: Well 2s are still high but 1's are catching up fast at the expense of 3s. So I think I will change from BaOTB4L which likes 2s and 3s, to BaS40 which likes 1's and 2s. You might do this even before SAP demands that you do it. You are reacting to the constant snap shots SAP is giving you of trend changes. Like I say, you can get better and better at this. SAP is the next best thing to outright cheating.

Right, you can't be changing systems with every SAP count. You can't be jumping the gun. Give the shoe room to maneuver. Eventually you will know the difference between normal fluctuations and true trend changes. This is a new concept for you. Give it a chance to focus.

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